John 14:9
By
Wrested Scriptures
John 14:9
"Jesus saith, . . . he that hath seen me hath seen the Father . . ."
Problem:
This verse is quoted by trinitarians as a clear declaration that Jesus Christ was God Almighty incarnate.
Solution:
- Jesus did not mean by these words that when men saw him, they were literally beholding his Father. Consider the following:
- Physically, Jesus was not the image of his Father. Isaiah wrote: "he hath no form nor comeliness; and when we shall see him, there is no beauty that we should desire him". (Isa. 53:2). It is unthinkable that the Father would be less comely than His creation.
- Jesus told the Jews that they had "neither heard his {the Father's} voice at any time, nor seen his shape." (John 5:37). This would have been untrue if Jesus were himself the Father.
- The Father dwells "in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see." (1 Tim. 6:16; cf. 1 John 4:12). Those who saw Jesus, did not, therefore literally see the Father.
- John said, "no man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him." (John 1:18). The Son "declared" the Father by the words which he spoke and the works which he performed. Jesus told Philip: "the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works." (John 14:10). It was in this sense that Jesus meant, "he that hath seen me hath seen the Father."
- Jesus employed the language of "God manifestation" characteristic of the Old Testament. Accredited representatives exercising divine power and authority bore the divine name. (See Exod. 23:20, 21 - "I send an Angel . . . my name is in him.") Jesus was the supreme manifestation - "God was manifest in the flesh." (1 Tim. 3:16). Although not "Very God" he was justified in saying "he that hath seen me hath seen the Father" since the Father had delegated this authority and power to him. (See John 5:19, 22, 23, 30).
Source: http://www.wrestedscriptures.com/b08trinity/john14v9.html
John 14:8-9
by
Misha'al Ibn Abdullah Al-Kadhi
Well, what about the verse
"He that hath seen me hath seen the father."
Let us look at the context:
"Philip saith unto him, Lord, shew us the Father, and it sufficeth us. Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father?"
John 14:8-9
Philip wanted to see God with his own eyes, but this is impossible since no one can ever do ever do that. The Bible says:
"No man hath seen God at any time,"
John 1:18
"No man hath seen God at any time,"
1 John 4:12
So Jesus simply told him that his own actions and miracles should be a sufficient proof of the existence of God without God having to physically come down and let himself be seen every time someone is doubtful. This is equivalent to for example
- John 8:19: "Then said they unto him, Where is thy Father? Jesus answered, Ye neither know me, nor my Father: if ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also."
- John 12:44 "Jesus cried and said, He that believeth on me, believeth not on me, but on him that sent me."
- John 15:23 "He that hateth me hateth my Father also."
- Matthew 10:40-41 "He that receiveth you receiveth me (Jesus), and he that receiveth me receiveth him that sent me. He that receiveth a prophet in the name of a prophet shall receive a prophet's reward; and he that receiveth a righteous man in the name of a righteous man shall receive a righteous man's reward."
If we want to insist that when Philip saw Jesus (pbuh), he had actually physically seen God "the Father" because Jesus "is" the father and both are one "Trinity," and Jesus is the "incarnation" of God, then this will force us to conclude that John 1:18, 1 John 4:12, ..etc. are all lies.
Well, is Philip the only one who ever "saw the father"? Let us read:
"Not that any man hath seen the Father, save he which is of God, he hath seen the Father."
John 6:46
Who is this who "is of God" and had seen the Father you ask? Let us once again ask the Bible:
"He that is of God heareth God's words: ye therefore hear them not, because ye are not of God."
John 8:47.
And
"Beloved, follow not that which is evil, but that which is good. He that doeth good is of God: but he that doeth evil hath not seen God"
3 John 1:11.
Have all people who have done good also physically seen God?
Source: http://wings.buffalo.edu/sa/muslim/library/jesus-say/ch1.2.2.9.html
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